Please help asap i will mark branlist

Answer:
A is the correct answer
Step-by-step explanation:
and here is why its similar to the pythagorean theorem a^2 +b^2 =c^2 where N is a and L is b and K is c so in theory the areas of N and L combined should equal to the area of K and A is also the only one that makes sense
If brainiest is earned its greatly Appreciated